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question about semantic methods

suppose you wanted to prove the following argument using the method of truth
tables:

[(P v Q) -> (Q v R)] & (P -> ~R)
~Q
————————————
Therefore, ~P

is there anything intrinsically wrong with proceeding as follows:

1) [(P v Q) -> (Q v R)] & (P -> ~R) is defined as follows:

P       Q       R       ||      [(P v Q) -> (Q v R)] & (P -> ~R)              
————————————————————————-
T       T       T       ||                      F      
T       T       F       ||                      T      
T       F       T       ||                      F
T       F       F       ||                      F
F       T       T       ||                      F
F       T       F       ||                      T
F       F       T       ||                      T
F       F       F       ||                      T

(ok, in order for things to fit, let’s call the formula ‘Z’)

2) the truth table for the argument is:

P       Q       R       ||      ~Q      Z       ~P
———————————————————
T       T       T       ||       F      F        F
T       T       F       ||       F      T        F
T       F       T       ||       T      F        F
T       F       F       ||       T      F        F
F       T       T       ||       F      F        T
F       T       F       ||       F      T        T
F       F       T       ||       T      T        T
F       F       F       ||       T      T        T

3) an inspection of the truth table shows that there are no instances in
which ~Q and Z are true, and ~P is false, therefore the argument is valid.

So, in other words, does the method of truth tables permit one in principle to
take the truth table definition of any complex formula, e.g. Z, as given, and
then plug it in to the truth table to look for counterexamples?

Now if this is permitted, if one can take the truth-table definition of any
logical sentence as given, would this amount to a purely semantic deduction
procedure? Suppose, instead, that one decomposed Z into its constituents in
order to make the inference more transparent, would this decomposition be
considered syntactic? (even though the search conducted after decomposing the
sentence might again be semantic). I’d like to know because I’m trying to
figure out the difference between semantic and syntactic methods, and whether
the assumption that a sentence has a combinatorial syntax and semantics
necessarily means that inference must at some point be syntactic, or the
flipside, if inference was purely semantic would one have to assume that all
logical sentences are atomic with each sentence defined independently.

thanks in advance for any help,
larry

Comment (1)




One Response to “question about semantic methods”

  1. admin says:

    In article <6av5ti$3c…@morgoth.sfu.ca>,

    - Hide quoted text — Show quoted text -

    Larry Fiddick <lfidd…@sfu.ca> wrote:
    >suppose you wanted to prove the following argument using the method of truth
    >tables:

    >[(P v Q) -> (Q v R)] & (P -> ~R)
    >~Q
    >————————————
    >Therefore, ~P

    >is there anything intrinsically wrong with proceeding as follows:

    >1) [(P v Q) -> (Q v R)] & (P -> ~R) is defined as follows:

    >P   Q       R       ||      [(P v Q) -> (Q v R)] & (P -> ~R)              
    >————————————————————————-
    >T   T       T       ||                      F      
    >T   T       F       ||                      T      
    >T   F       T       ||                      F
    >T   F       F       ||                      F
    >F   T       T       ||                      F
    >F   T       F       ||                      T
    >F   F       T       ||                      T
    >F   F       F       ||                      T

    >(ok, in order for things to fit, let’s call the formula ‘Z’)

    >2) the truth table for the argument is:

    >P   Q       R       ||      ~Q      Z       ~P
    >———————————————————
    >T   T       T       ||       F      F        F
    >T   T       F       ||       F      T        F
    >T   F       T       ||       T      F        F
    >T   F       F       ||       T      F        F
    >F   T       T       ||       F      F        T
    >F   T       F       ||       F      T        T
    >F   F       T       ||       T      T        T
    >F   F       F       ||       T      T        T

    >3) an inspection of the truth table shows that there are no instances in
    >which ~Q and Z are true, and ~P is false, therefore the argument is valid.

            Right.  Every t.a. that satisfies {~Q, Z} also satisfies ~P;
    that is,  {~Q, Z} |= ~P.

    >So, in other words, does the method of truth tables permit one in principle to
    >take the truth table definition of any complex formula, e.g. Z, as given, and
    >then plug it in to the truth table to look for counterexamples?

    >Now if this is permitted, if one can take the truth-table definition of any
    >logical sentence as given, would this amount to a purely semantic deduction
    >procedure? Suppose, instead, that one decomposed Z into its constituents in
    >order to make the inference more transparent, would this decomposition be
    >considered syntactic? (even though the search conducted after decomposing the
    >sentence might again be semantic). I’d like to know because I’m trying to
    >figure out the difference between semantic and syntactic methods, and whether
    >the assumption that a sentence has a combinatorial syntax and semantics
    >necessarily means that inference must at some point be syntactic, or the
    >flipside, if inference was purely semantic would one have to assume that all
    >logical sentences are atomic with each sentence defined independently.

            Decomposition is part of the definition of semantics; you did in
    effect do that when you computed the truth table of Z.  You could even employ
    syntactic transformations, like replacing  P v Q  by  ~Q -> P, and still
    claim to be proceeding semantically, since you can justify them by semantics.

            The syntactic approach would be  {~Q, Z} |- ~P, or  |- (~Q & Z) -> ~P.
    This doesn’t involve semantics; "|- S" means there is a sequence of formulas
    a_0, a_1, …, a_n  where a_n is S, and each a_i is either a logic axiom or
    arises via M.P. (i.e. there are  j, k  < i  such that  a_j  is  "a_k -> a_i").
    Logic axioms are (Hilbert-Ackermann)  (A v A) -> A,  A -> (A v B),  (A v B) ->
    -> (B v A),  (A -> B) ->((C v A) -> (C v B)),   for arbitrary formulas A, B, C.
    Here,  A -> B  is shorthand for  ~A v B  (and  A & B  is written ~(~A v ~B) ).
    There are many other ways to define  |-.

            Of course the point is that  |- S  iff  |= S.   As  |-  tends to be
    cumbersome, in practice one uses |=  (or a mix);  but the two approaches
    are equivalent.

                                                    Ilias

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